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personal contact and communication to Steven Avery
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<blockquote data-quote="Kalkas" data-source="post: 6706" data-attributes="member: 550"><p>Hello,</p><p></p><p>I have a question concerning the Hebrew text underlying the KJV. I have realized that Leningrad Codex was not part of the MT edition underlying KJV (the text of Jacob ben Hayyim). What about Aleppo Codex?</p><p></p><p>According to the article <a href="https://davidwilber.com/articles/why-gods-name-is-not-yehovah#" target="_blank">“Why God’s Name is not Yehovah,”</a> </p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>Those variations that point to Elohim have very few times the expected <em>chatef segal</em> (which is the first vowel of Elohim), but mostly <em>sheva</em>. This would support the view that vowel changes were present even when used in <em>ketiv-qere. </em>I wonder whether the MT underlying KJV was different with that regard, i.e., the vowel <em>chatef segal</em> appeared frequently when pointing to read Elohim?</p><p></p><p>I have to concede that my principal reason for preferring Yehovah/Jehovah is that KJV supports it. I am also of firm belief that KJV translators knew about the scribal practice of <em>ketiv-qere; </em>just observe the translators’ own practice in that they used small caps LORD and GOD instead of translating in all instances with “Jehovah.” Why would they use LORD and GOD unless they were familiar with the scribal practise in question? That tells me that they had very good reasons to accept the name “Jehovah” as the sacred name of the God of the Bible.</p><p></p><p>Kind regards,</p><p>Aleksandar</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Kalkas, post: 6706, member: 550"] Hello, I have a question concerning the Hebrew text underlying the KJV. I have realized that Leningrad Codex was not part of the MT edition underlying KJV (the text of Jacob ben Hayyim). What about Aleppo Codex? According to the article [URL='https://davidwilber.com/articles/why-gods-name-is-not-yehovah#']“Why God’s Name is not Yehovah,”[/URL] Those variations that point to Elohim have very few times the expected [I]chatef segal[/I] (which is the first vowel of Elohim), but mostly [I]sheva[/I]. This would support the view that vowel changes were present even when used in [I]ketiv-qere. [/I]I wonder whether the MT underlying KJV was different with that regard, i.e., the vowel [I]chatef segal[/I] appeared frequently when pointing to read Elohim? I have to concede that my principal reason for preferring Yehovah/Jehovah is that KJV supports it. I am also of firm belief that KJV translators knew about the scribal practice of [I]ketiv-qere; [/I]just observe the translators’ own practice in that they used small caps LORD and GOD instead of translating in all instances with “Jehovah.” Why would they use LORD and GOD unless they were familiar with the scribal practise in question? That tells me that they had very good reasons to accept the name “Jehovah” as the sacred name of the God of the Bible. Kind regards, Aleksandar [/QUOTE]
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