convoluted theories - and James Snapp homoeteleuton PICS

Steven Avery

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Steven Avery
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Talking about my convolutions. (Who?)
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The convoluted theory is that a glaring, barbaric Greek solecism is fixed by an amazing ultra-Johannine-stylistic, super-harmonious Latin paralellism interpolation, all made by Klunk the interpolator. Almost supernaturally, the interpolation fixes the Greek when brought over the dividing line.
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Convoluted theory #2 is that a good number of references, including Greek, and allusions and ECW writing and confession wording, all have no source in scripture. Despite the early reliance on scripture in the Ante-Nicene period for formulations. Yet this confessional and doctrinal wording matches to a "T" the supposed late Latin heavenly witnesses interpolation.
Convoluted theory #3 is that what is supposed to be a doctrinally motivated interpolation would have to be inserted before the period of the doctrinal battles that were supposed to have supplied the interpolation motivation.
Convoluted theory #4 are theories of late Latin interpolations that do not have any vector of transmission to explain how the full wide-geographic Meditteranean regions, Spain, Carthage, Italy, Crete, (Council of Carthage 484 AD and supporting references) all had their Bibles with a verse that was supposed to have been interpolated yesterday.
Convoluted theory #5 is how a crystal-clear Cyprian reference to the heavenly witnesses is hand-waved into ultra-convoluted allegorical mish-a-moshes.
Convoluted theory #6 is how massive amounts of corollary evidences like the Old Latin ms. line, the additional words of Tertullian and Cyprian, the allusions of Claudius Apollinaris and Origen, Hundredfold Martyrs, and other Ante-Nicene evidences are simply similarly ignored when attempting #5. Those who close their eyes have no right to complain about not being able to see.
Convoluted theory #7 is the supposed invisibility in the Greek tradition, when the evidences like ones above (from Greek and bilingual writers) are ignored, and then the additional Greek evidences (in the earlier period -- Disputation of Athanasius with Arius at Nicea, Synopsis of Sacred Scripture) are simply ignored and handwaved.
Convoluted theory #7a is supposing a type of Greek-Latin Chinese wall made the largest church and Bible body invisible (European and African Latin) while the smaller Greek world was unable to read any Latin. In fact especially in the Ante-Nicene period, yet also for many in the later periods, dual language skills was normative.
Convoluted theory #8 is taking a powerful and crystal clear writing from the Greek-Latin fluent scholar and translator Jerome, that there were scribes and translators who deliberately chose to leave out the heavenly witnesses, and then, with no non-circular evidence, claim that the Vulgate Prologue is ... poof .. a forgery. And thus ignored even though it is one of the earliest extant 1 John 5 mss. Despite absolutely compelling evidences that Jerome was well aware of the heavenly witnesses verse, collaborating Jerome as fully the Prologue capable author. Note that the Prologue itself has numerous internal evidences of Jerome authorship authenticity. Thus, ironically, the inconsistency of ignoring Johannine "internal" evidences is supported by a similar inconsistency in ignoring Jerome's Vulgate Prologue "internal" (including historical and stylistic) evidences.
Convoluted theory #8A is not noticing that the decrepit forgery theory was originally based on the lateness of the extant Prologue mss, c. 800 AD. And then not fixing the error (i.e. real scholarship) when the 545 AD ms., only one century after the passing of Jerome, written directly under the auspices of the learned Victor Capua, was discovered to have the Prologue. This was in the mid-1800s and for most of the contras only led to a thunderous silence. And for a few there were tepid attempts at alternative oddball flakey-cakey new forgery theories.
Convoluted theory #8B is not noticing direct written evidence that even Augustine was adverse to the heavenly witnesses, in a manner that is comparable to what Augustine himself reported about the Pericope Adultera.
Convoluted theory #9 is that many evidences that Johannine Alogi and heavenly witnesses concepts were specifically delicate in the early Bible and textual period, and could be bypassed or suppressed, or placed by some under the disciplini arcana secrecy, is not considered a primary aspect of study and consideration. When it should be researched as one factor in determining whether text was omitted or inserted.
Convoluted theory #10, cycling back to #1, is that an ad hoc or accidental interpolation would fill specific gaps in logic and sense in the 1John 5 schema, such as showing what is the "witness of God" or the awkward redundancy of verse 6-->8 without the heavenly witnesses. In fact, the verse fits like the marine's compass (Wesley, Bengel) in the Johannine sectopm. chapter, book and overall expression. Removed, the mangling is untenable, the center does not hold.
Convoluted theory #11, with what is common sense and now science sense about scribal habits and textual transmission, is that any late interpolation would take over any major Bible language line. Never happened. (This convoluted theory is in opposition to the basic simple concepts of inspiration and preservation.)
Convoluted theory #12 is looking at omission atomistically, that it must be all accidental, or all deliberate and purposeful, when in fact many omissions were almost surely combinations of the two elements, over time.
Convoluted theory #13 is looking at the doctrinal Christological battles through modern pablum evangelical John MacArthur style glasses, and ignoring the actual evidences of the early nascent Trinitarian vs. Sabellian battles. Battles in which both sides could find the heavenly witnesses not their cup of Bible tea, when faced with a bifurcated Greek textline. As Edward Freer Hills, and others, have pointed out, the dropping of the verse from the Greek textline would be largely in those early Greek battle times, 2nd to early 3rd century. And this is way before any negative omission ms. evidences.
Convoluted theory #14 is the claim that the heavenly witnesses were missing from the doctrinal battles when (a) the wording of the verse was everywhere (b) we do have some direct Greek evidences including the Disputation above and (c) the uses in the Latin tradition in the Arian battles was massive

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James E Snapp Jr
Steven,
Actually I was thinking of T. C. Skeat's theory about the origin of the Byzantine reading in Luke 6:1, among others.

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Steven Avery
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James, I realize that humorous convolution theories abound in todays textual "science" ... my point is simply to keep those playing fields level
🙂
. In discussions of primary Bible verse battle-grounds, including the heavenly witnesses.
If you were answering the "Who?" reference,that is an inside humour du jour.
 

Steven Avery

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Steven Avery
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This consideration of not knowing exactly the format in the early centuries is a potential argument against virtually any homoeteleuton argument.
🙂

The more basic issue is that the Alexandrian mss frequently shortened everything and anything .. .. with or without homoteleuton .. yet most everything was maintained and restored in the mass of mss.
So the curiosity is, when that did not happen, as in Acts 8:37, or the heavenly witnesses .. why not?.
a) were there early doctrinal considerations that could caused early doctrinal omission, or the preference for the truncated ms ? (yes, even the Sabellian controversies for the hw). This could have resulted in a far more complete dropping of the text. See Edward Freer Hills and Henry Thomas Armfield.
b) were there Arian and other doctrinal considerations that might have nudged Eusebius and friends to be more aggressive in choosing the omission text ?
c) were there (doctrinal) considerations that would have hampered the restoration of some verses, while most others were restored?
These (b and c) were questions raised by Frederick Nolan.
Usually his approach is not given proper respect, yet since he was an ultra-sharp writer who knew the early church years. (He got into some rough and tumble with Thomas Falconer on certain specific assertions.)
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One of the "King James Bible Debate" posters surprised me by raising some of these issues the other day.
Billy Ferrel
https://www.facebook.com/.../212096.../10152459198881693/...
Acts 8:37 and the Ending of Mark 16 were censored by the Roman Empire due to conflicts with Roman Law as shown in the Codex Theodosius. The issue is infant Baptism...both Acts 8:37 and Mark 16:16 refute Infant Baptism (as an infant cannot believe)....which was required for Roman Citizenship under the Emperor therefore said verses were censored by the Governmental Scribes under Eusebius who had Constantius in his Back Pocket. I cannot recall the name of the contemporary of Jerome who mentioned that Greek Scribes were omitting the ending of Mark 16. Most of the verses censored from the Text were due to conflicts with the Roman Government Law (Acts 8:37, Mark 16, John 8, John 5:4) as shown in the Codex Theodosius although many were later restored by the Greeks "Mark 16". With the exception of 1 John 5:7 which they continued to censor due to the Council of Constantinople 360 carried by Stare Decisis (English Law concept is "precedent") from Contantius forward which is recorded by Jerome, Philostorgius (Arian Historian) and documented in the Codex Theodosius itself.
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This may give us some really fine research points.
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A contra even helped with some quotes from Nolan (and Dabney, less significant)
Questions About Our Modern Bible Translations
Bill Brown - June, 2013
http://forums.carm.org/vbb/showthread.php...
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Steven Avery

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James E Snapp Jr
Steven, "Acts 8:37 and the Ending of Mark 16 were censored by the Roman Empire"???? "As shown in the Codex Theodosius." . . .
"Most of the verses censored from the Text were due to conflicts with the Roman Government Law (Acts 8:37, mark 16, John 8, John 5:4)" -- again "As shown in the Codex Theodosius."
I challenge. Show.
 

Steven Avery

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Steven Avery
You are right to challenge
🙂
. I invited Billy to come over. I want to see if the argument is hard (direct line-up of quotes) or soft (conjectural). And either way, how sensible is the assertion.

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Buck Daniel
Steven, I've found to my fascination that almost every time I compare an uncial mss with my own Alexandrian GNT, the line-length is always within a couple of letters. Of course there is a lot of variety from it for various reasons, but there really does seem to be a standard format of about 30 letters per line of 1-column mss.

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Buck Daniel
In such a case, the h.t. of the CJ would end in the middle of the line in this sample, but not at
https://www.facebook.com/photo.php?fbid=4626004571508...


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Steven Avery
Do you have any reason to think that ms line lengths were the same in the 2nd century (homoeoteleuton time) as they were in whatever ms date you have?

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Damon Lee Gang
The folllowing free pdf download of an 19th century book has 70 pages or so of a Catholic priest arguing for 1 John 5:7 which some may find of
interest: http://books.google.com/books?id=WMw9AAAAIAAJ&oe=UTF-8

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Steven Avery
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Wiseman's essays are largely about a couple of Latin evidences, La Cava (Codex Cavensis) and one Speculum ms, that helped refute some Latin handwaves in the 1800s as more and more such evidences were found. The handwaves were already refuted by the Council of Carthage, the Vulgate Prologue and other evidences, however, the additional Latin evidences were helpful. Wiseman goes into some Old Latin textline issues.
Later on in the 1800s there were a number of fine articles written by rcc writers. Daniel McCarthy, Abbe le Hir (friend of Charles Forster), and Charles Vincent Dolman (some exc. articles in the Dublin Review). Also there were some solid French defenders.
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Tertullian - Against Praxeas reference
In the article, Wiseman raises an interesting point about the best-known Tertullian reference (he actually has three or four allusions to the verse) in Adversus Praxean, and then Daniel McCarthy gives some counterpoint. It would be good to read the Tertuallian section afresh and decide whether the Wiseman additional emphasis on the later "duo unum sunt" is a helpful addition to the heavenly witnesses ECW history.
Wiseman - 1834 - reprinted as Essays on Various Subjects, 1853
http://books.google.com/books?id=WMw9AAAAIAAJ&pg=PA66
. To see the full force of his expression, we must read farther till we come to the following words: " Nam et Spiritus substantia est Sermonis, et Sermo operatio Spiritus, et duo unum sunt" Tertullian certainly does not here refer to the passage he has already discussed so fully,—"ego et Pater unum sumus;" for it could never prove that the Son and Holy Ghost are one God. Yet he seems to allude to some text of equal force, where the Word and the Spirit are mentioned as being one; and this text can only be the one which he had already, in the passage commonly quoted, compared with that regarding the Father and the Son. He says, "duo unum sunt," because his argument, at that moment, required not the mention of all, and he was only alluding, not quoting.
Daniel McCarthy - 1866
http://books.google.com/books?id=SuxS-z-6SIUC&pg=PA514
Charles Forster (very skilled) - 1868
noted the Wiseman discovery (i.e. in terms of hw usage by Tertullian)
http://books.google.com/books?id=yXIsAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA155
"A late writer on the controversy, just fallen into my hands, points out, in the treatise against Praxeas, decisive collateral proof of these words being quotation. I gladly avail myself of his acute criticism and independent authority."
Tertullian Against Praxeas (1919)
Alexander Souter
http://books.google.com/books?id=mOJLAAAAIAAJ&pg=PA98
"Thus the link with the Father in the Son and of the Son in the Paraclete makes three cleaving together, each to his neighbour. These three are one thing," not one person, as it is put: " I and the Father are one thing," in respect to unity of nature, not as regards the singular number.... p. 98
(note how strong a verse allusion you have, corroborative with Cyprian .. then the other section)
.... For just as when John says : " The Word was made Flesh," we understand " the Spirit" also in the mention of "the Word," so also here we recognise "the Word " also in the name of the Spirit." For besides, spirit is the foundation of speech, and speech is the working of spirit, and the two are one. But John would declare that one "was; made flesh," the angel would say that the other ' would become flesh, if spirit is not also word, and ' word spirit. .(p. 101)
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Steven Avery

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Billy Ferrell
Regarding the Censoring of the passages omitted from the new Bibles in the Codex Theodosius I would recommend to the readers familiarizing themselves with Section 16 of the Theodosian Code.

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Billy Ferrell
Regarding the Censoring of the Biblical Texts according to Roman Law this is really not a matter that the Textual Critics will have much input on as it would take awhile simply to explain Law and Classical History. Rather it is a matter to be reviewed by Scholars of Roman Law and Classical History. When I write the work up in toto it will be reviewed by said disciplines and their opinions will be reviewed.

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell,
Okay, Billy, that sounds really complicated. How about just familiarizing me the ability of Section 16 of the Theodosian Code to influence the text of P75 and the Lycopolitan MS of John.

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Billy Ferrell
Oh thats a good question well obviously the codex Theodosius is merely a compilation of all of the existing Roman Laws which includes the Lex Augustus so that easily explains the censor of the Periscope Adulterae in P75.

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Billy Ferrell
Is this text considered genuine of a forgery: Lycopolitan MS of John

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell, So are you saying that Christians, despite being targeted by the Roman government during persecutions, excised their Scriptures at points where they disagreed with Roman law??

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James E Snapp Jr
The Lycopolitan MS of John is regarded as genuine; I know of no one who considers it a forgery.

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Billy Ferrell
Not the Christians using the Greek Vulgate of course. However many texts were manufactured by heretics and secular sources. So in those instances, specifically the secular scribes then yes they would have censored them to make them non offensive to the ruling governmental authorities.

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell, why would a secular scribe who was preparing a Christian text alter it in that way? The entire enterprise of the Christian church, as an illegal religion comprised of members who refused to sacrifice to the emperor's image, was offensive to the ruling governmental authorities.

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Billy Ferrell
Historians say that there were secular scribes selling corrupt versions of scripture. This is one of the main problems I have with the Presuppositions of the Textual Critics which seem to believe that any text is from the persecuted church. Obviously if you worshiped Christ and sacrificed to the Emperor both you would not be persecuted.

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell, Could you be more specific? What historians say that secular scribes were selling edited copies of Scripture that were adjusted so as to conform to Roman laws? I don't know of any.

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Billy Ferrell
Jerome. Eusebius.

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Billy Ferrell
I mean look it makes sense. Romans loved reading about Religion. What they hated was exclusivity.

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell, where in their writings are you claiming that Eusebius and Jerome claim such a thing?

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Billy Ferrell
Umm Jerome complains about all of the corrupt bibles printed on velvet circulating among the ladies of Rome I believe and Eusebius tells of Diocletian "burning scriptures in the marketplace".

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Billy Ferrell
Regarding the Baptism Censor, which was more widely applied with the government assuming control of the "Christian" church after Constantine...this censor was most likely applied by those practicing infant baptism beforehand....as Origin speaks of infant Baptism. Most certainly when you read Tertullians treatise on Baptism you see the problems with Baptism, most specifically the relation to John 5:4 to Baptism, et al.

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Billy Ferrell
which is how I would explain the Chester Beatty Papyri...anyways those texts are from Egypt so they're immediately suspect.

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Billy Ferrell
A century later Jerome became impassioned about conspicuous luxury in Christian books. He wrote with biting sarcasm about biblical codices of old, badly translated texts: 'veteres libros vel in membranis purpureis auro argentoque descriptos, vel uncialibus, ut vulgo aiunt, literis onera magis exarata quam codices', i.e. manuscripts made with expensive material and with 'inch-high' letters.

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell, Those references/allusions do not describe specifically the sort of thing you are describing. The existence of the claim, "Heretics corrupted their manuscripts" is not the same as, "Copyists excised the Pericope of the Adulteress in order to conform the Gospels-text to the parameters of Roman laws."
Likewise, Jerome's comment to the effeect that it is better to have a manuscript with proper punctuation than a manuscript on purple parchment with large letters does not even remotely suggest what you seem to think that it suggests.

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James E Snapp Jr
Billy Ferrell, You mean *Origen*? (Not "Origin.")

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Steven Avery
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James, while your questions in general are good ones, e.g. comparing the dates of early omission of a text by extant evidences, compared to Roman Law institution, and also reviewing interpretations. You might want to reconsider one of the examples:
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The forgery of the Lycopolitan gospel of John
http://evangelicaltextualcriticism.blogspot.com/.../the...
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I have a question for Billy about the above. Why would Latin Vulgate (which would mean texts after 383 in the Vulgate tradition, leaving aside Old Latin) be immune? Where it was being used in lands with an active Roman governmental presence. The lag time in extant mss between the production and the first full extant texts is about 140 years in Fuldensis (which in the Gospels is a harmony) produced in Italy under Victor of Capua, and about 300 years to Amiatinus.
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Especially noting that some of the specific references we have about omission come to us in the Latin tradition of Augustine. And Jerome in the very Vulgate Prologue who likely is referencing deliberate omission of the heavenly witnesses in Greek and Latin mss. (In fact, as we discovered, even the Book of Armagh demonstrates that this truncating of the text had occurred, as well as Fuldensis itself.)
Johannine Comma - ECW - (04xx) Theodorus - "A Treatise on one God in the Trinity, from the Epistle of John the Evangelist" Eis ten Epistolen Ioannou tou Eua
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Incidentally, there are another group of notes about deliberate omission that have to be looked out, that most textual studies do not point out.
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The Frederick Nolan writings go into some detail into the Constantine and Eusebius period, contending that they show evidence that Eusebius allowed or encouraged some verses to be omitted. Right now, I am not pulling out what he considered to be the most relevant quotes. (He had a very intense back-and-forth with Thomas Falconer, the final Nolan writing on the topic is not easily available.)
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Perhaps related to that, Constantine inquired about "a certain passage of scripture" (likely the heavenly witnesses) in discussions relating about the divinity of the Word.
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Thus, there is a whole group of studies that relate to deliberate omission that we have from the fourth and fifth century that is invisible in the writings of the modern one-dimensional Vaticanus-primary textual criticism establishment. (In some cases, to be fair, the omissions are of Old Latin line additions that were in the writings of Tertullian, Ambrose and others.) To get a handle on this period, one realm of research involves the writings of the historians after Eusebius, Sozomen, Theodoret of Cyrrhus, and Evagrius Scholasticus.
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What Billy Farrell is studying seems to be a complementary element to those studies of textual omission, pressure and official inquiry ... using the lens of Roman law understanding, and the Roman-Christian relationships.
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Steven Avery

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Steven Avery
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Bodmer Papyri - papyri not so early
(moved to new thread)

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Billy Ferrell
James...Ok well I disagree I think it is obvious that from the cites secular scribes were producing biblical texts for sale

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Billy Ferrell
The Latin speaking areas were difficult to govern by Constantinople. Notice the constant rebellions....Dontatists ad all culminating with the wave of barbaric incursions in the 400s which made anything to the West very independent. Just like the Donatists refused to go along with Rome...likewise many of them refuse to go along with the new recision of Bible text and instead continued to use their Old Latin.

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Billy Ferrell
By the way the law against Adultery is from Caesar Augustus.

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Steven Avery
Understood and this would apply to varying degrees to various regions. The Itala line used by Augustine would be more local and was pegged by Nolan as subject to Eusebius omissions, and he specifically looked at Codex Vercellennsis as a part of this recension. ( Granted, we have to remember to keep Eusbius of Caesarea and Eusebius of Vercellensis separate, as they both are seen as involved in 4th century textual questions)
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Some Vulgate ms in that region could be affected.

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Billy Ferrell
Right it depends upon Chain of Custody b/c groups of independent Christians....specifically in the West, and I would argue some in the East as well, continued to use their Old Latin/Old Greek (which was uncensored and correct) specifically because they simply did not follow a great majority of the Laws of the Roman Empire. We often forget that while the East was mainly metropolitan consisting of large cities the Latin West was by comparison very rural.

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Steven Avery
Interesting point about the Old Greek NT:
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Hort claimed that Vaticanus (along with the radically different Sinaiticus) comprised the Old Greek line, which he called the Netural text.
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Beyond that, it is interesting that Old Greek is only used for the Hebrew Bible.
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Clearly Nolan was seeking to coordinate the Old Greek and the Old Latin, not sure if he used any descriptive term (like Old Greek).
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Steven Avery

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Billy Ferrell
Well this came up with the Tyconius commentary on Revelation/Apocalypse before in a discussion I had...there could be an unedited edition and a corrupted edition of the same material....in addition one could be for the Christian proper and another one edited for use by the Catechuman....likewise one could be corrupted simply b/c it was produced by merchants while another by the Christians/church proper...so assuming even the same text of a title say "The Book of John" were all used by the proper Christians is a presumption which i believe is obviously wrong. Just like in Court we need to examine who viewed said text as authoritative compare it with quotes....i.e....chain of custody...which is what the Reformers and the Authorized Version do....

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