Steven Avery
Administrator
NT Textual Criticism
https://www.facebook.com/groups/NTTextualCriticism/permalink/694626313957705/
The Doctrine of the Greek Article
Thomas Fanshawe Middleton wanted to show that the Greek definite article was essentially a relative pronoun.
.
"the article was originally used as a Pronoun Relative, in the usual acceptation of that term, and that subsequently, when it ceased to be so used, there was still an implied reference to some object which had occupied the mind of the speaker, though perhaps not previously declared"
- The Doctrine of the Greek Article
Middleton received some scathing criticism for his constructions. Should the article be classed with the pronouns, or the adjectives, or its own special spot?
Anyway, Middleton did conclude, as per our current discussion:
The Doctrine of the Greek Article Applied to the Criticism and Illustration of the New Testament (1841)
"the pronoun ὁς not having connection with any Noun, except that to which it was subjoined"
The Greek Article: A Functional Grammar of ὁ-items in the Greek New Testament with Special Emphasis on the Greek Article (2014)
Ronald D. Peters
https://books.google.com/books?id=QDuOAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA49
And Ronald D. Peters points out that
"by subjoined he means the use of the relative pronoun to indicate a relationship between a noun and a relative clause."
Taking us right back to standard grammar, and ὁς lacking an antecedent in 1 Timothy 3:16, and thus the bogus and absurd hymn theory to mask the solecism in the ultra-minority Greek text.
https://www.facebook.com/groups/NTTextualCriticism/permalink/694626313957705/
The Doctrine of the Greek Article
Thomas Fanshawe Middleton wanted to show that the Greek definite article was essentially a relative pronoun.
.
"the article was originally used as a Pronoun Relative, in the usual acceptation of that term, and that subsequently, when it ceased to be so used, there was still an implied reference to some object which had occupied the mind of the speaker, though perhaps not previously declared"
- The Doctrine of the Greek Article
Middleton received some scathing criticism for his constructions. Should the article be classed with the pronouns, or the adjectives, or its own special spot?
Anyway, Middleton did conclude, as per our current discussion:
The Doctrine of the Greek Article Applied to the Criticism and Illustration of the New Testament (1841)
"the pronoun ὁς not having connection with any Noun, except that to which it was subjoined"
The Greek Article: A Functional Grammar of ὁ-items in the Greek New Testament with Special Emphasis on the Greek Article (2014)
Ronald D. Peters
https://books.google.com/books?id=QDuOAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA49
And Ronald D. Peters points out that
"by subjoined he means the use of the relative pronoun to indicate a relationship between a noun and a relative clause."
Taking us right back to standard grammar, and ὁς lacking an antecedent in 1 Timothy 3:16, and thus the bogus and absurd hymn theory to mask the solecism in the ultra-minority Greek text.
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