(Kriig. p. 138,2 Jelf 655. 7) from Winer

[Steven Avery]

CARM
https://forums.carm.org/threads/bri...itnesses-authenticity.9987/page-3#post-742292

From Post 41, Smeiser is the author.
http://www.ntgreek.net/lesson18.htm
Meet the Instructor
http://www.ntgreek.net/about.htm
Jeff Smelser
I am a preacher of the gospel and work with the Exton church of Christ. Exton is on the "Mainline" west of Philadelphia, PA.

You write

Moreover consider a material difference between ούτος (this) & ἐκεῖνος (that) (from Winer):

Winer
https://books.google.com/books?id=rpUCAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA195

https://books.google.com/books?id=-UhVAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA196

2.
Conversely, in A. iii. 13 εκείνος is to be referred to the nearest subject (Kriig. p. 138,2 Jelf 655. 7):

This is about a specific A. iii. 13.

I do not know who is Kriig, it is Krüg and might be Krüger

A grammar of the Greek language. With an additional index to the constructions of the Gospels, Acts and Epistles (1861)
William Edward Jelf (1811-1875)
https://archive.org/details/grammarofgreekla02jelfuoft/page/358/mode/2up

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[Steven Avery]

s

Where do I find this statement by Smeiser?

I'll try to get back to that quickly. It took awhile to unravel your post and the interlocking sources.

So if you are taking ἐκεῖνος τὸ Πνεῦμα to mean anything else but "that Spirit" you are basing your construction on gender alone.

Nope.

John 16:13
Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come,
he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself;
but whatsoever he shall hear,
that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.

The B-Greek forum explains why “the Spirit of truth” is a subordinate clause.

B- Greek: The Biblical Greek Forum
Gender of EKEINOS in Joh 16,13
https://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1605

Peter Streitenbergre
in John 16,13 it reads: Ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος, τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ἀληθείας, ὁδηγήσει ὑμᾶς εἰς πᾶσαν τὴν ἀλήθειαν·
πνεῦμα is an Apposition to ἐκεῖνος, but why does the Gender (mask. - neuter) not agree ?

Carl W. Conrad
If you'll look closely at the preceding verses in the context (verses 7-11), you'll note the reference to ὁ παράκλητος is spoken of and referred to thereafter as ἐκεῖνος. It would appear that the noun παράκλητος governs the author's choice of the masculine pronoun.

Peter Streitenberger
Ok, I understand, Dr. Conrad. What do you think of this explantion: “Sometimes the demonstrative pronoun will agree with the natural gender rather than the grammatical gender. For example, the masculine pronoun EKEINOS is used in John 14,26 and 16,13-14 to refer to the neuter noun PNEUMA to emphasize the personality of the Holy Spirit” ( “Intermediate New Testament Greek”, Richard Young S. 78).
Thank you again for a clarification

Stephen Carlson
In both cited cases, it seems clear that the antecedent to ἐκεῖνος is the masculine ὁ παράκλητος.

Jason A. Hare
ἐκεῖνος, as has been aptly explained already in this thread, is NOT referring to πνεῦμα in that verse. I realize that some interpreters want to take this as an instance of constructio ad sensum, but it isn't. It is clearly and definitely referring to the masculine noun παράκλητος in the context.