Benedict Winer, Henry Alford and Ezra Abbot on the Titus 2:13 grammar and context

Steven Avery


II Tim. 1:10 διὰ τῆς ἐπιφανείας τοῦ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ,
Tit. 2:13 ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
there is nothing about the phrase "σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ" that prohibits the use of the article.

Thanks. I agree that I should have spent more time on this the other day, yesterday I did the Poughkeepsie May Fest, walking the bridge, and cut my time down.

This does not show us if there is any grammatical imperative for the definite article, but it shows that it is possible.
Winer never said it was impossible only that the text is definite without the article.

As Henry Alford put it:
"It is joined with ἡμῶν, an additional reason why it may spare the article"
In fact, Alford also works with the second point of Winer:

Again, as Winer has observed (edn. 6, § 19, 5 b, remark 1), the prefixing of an appositional designation to the proper name frequently causes the omission of the article. So in 2Thessalonians 1:12: 2Peter 1:1: Jude 1:4: see also 2Corinthians 1:2; 2Corinthians 6:18: Galatians 1:3: Ephesians 1:2; Ephesians 6:23: Philippians 1:2; Philippians 2:11; Philippians 3:20 &c.

So there is a definite article when there is only one independent subject, the article is omitted when two subjects (2 Peter 1:1) simply because it would lessen their unity and connection, not because it gives a totally different meaning in the mind of Paul.

Alford covers this (2) is dual subject, AV style, (1) is Sharpian mangling
That the insertion of the article would have been decisive for (2), is plain: but is it equally plain, that its omission is decisive for (1)? This must depend entirely on the nature and position of the word thus left anarthrous. If it is a word which had by usage become altogether or occasionally anarthrous,—if it is so connected, that the presence of the article expressed, is not requisite to its presence in the sense, then the state of the case, as regards the omission, is considerably altered. Now there is no doubt that σωτήρ was one of those words which gradually dropped the article and became a quasi proper name: ... Then as to its structural and contextual connexion. It is joined with ἡμῶν, which is an additional reason why it may spare the article

It is ironic that the verse you are using is one that shows that the appearing of Jesus is a distinct subject.

2 Timothy 1:10 (AV)
But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ,
who hath abolished death,
and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel:

Titus 2:13 (AV)
Looking for that blessed hope,
and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

Matthew 16:27 (AV)
For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels;
and then he shall reward every man according to his works.

Matthew 25:31 (KJV) When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:

See analogy verse:

The verses make sense together only when Titus 2:13 is in the Authorized Version text, in the two-subject mode.

In 2 Timothy 1:10, the word is used to denote the first coming of Christ to destroy death and bring life. The verbal parallel to Titus. 2:13 is striking, ...

The question really comes down to whether the definite article is needed, an imperative, or is it simply authorial contextual style.

This morning I noticed that Ezra Abbot does not emphasize the Winer position (he is using the translation sufficiently definite) but brings forth a related argument.

2 Peter 1:1 (AV)
Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:


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There is no grammatical reason that the Greek, “προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ”, cannot be translated into English as it reads literally:

“looking for the blessed hope and appearing of the Glory of the Great God and Saviour of us Jesus Christ”

“ἡμῶν”, can be translated as “of us”, as it can be in other places, like Galatians 1:4, where the literal reading of the Greek, “τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν”, is, “the will of the God and Father of us”, etc...

In Romans 4:16, the KJV translates the Greek, "πίστεως Ἀβραάμ, ὅς ἐστιν πατὴρ πάντων ἡμῶν", as "faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all"