Steven Avery
Administrator
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/1328/did-luke-use-josephus-as-a-source
Along with other facts that could be mentioned, it is perhaps most surprising that Luke uses Hebrew idioms often and correctly. For a native Greek speaker, this is very unnatural. To construct and use correctly such a large number of idioms(1) is not only surprising but goes against Luke's goal of showing the universality of the Gospel. However, if Luke still had access to native speakers and eyewitness of the events of Luke and Acts such works perfectly. Given the average life span and the need for a healthy Jewish-Christianity flourishing in the Land for Luke to accomplish all the above, we conclude that Luke wrote Acts prior to AD 64.
[Much of the final section is summarized from Nunnally's Commentary on Acts.]
Along with other facts that could be mentioned, it is perhaps most surprising that Luke uses Hebrew idioms often and correctly. For a native Greek speaker, this is very unnatural. To construct and use correctly such a large number of idioms(1) is not only surprising but goes against Luke's goal of showing the universality of the Gospel. However, if Luke still had access to native speakers and eyewitness of the events of Luke and Acts such works perfectly. Given the average life span and the need for a healthy Jewish-Christianity flourishing in the Land for Luke to accomplish all the above, we conclude that Luke wrote Acts prior to AD 64.
[Much of the final section is summarized from Nunnally's Commentary on Acts.]